CTFL_Syll_4.0 Certification Exam Dumps Questions in here [Dec-2024]
Updated CTFL_Syll_4.0 Exam Practice Test Questions
NEW QUESTION # 73
Confirmation testing is performed after:
- A. a defect is fixed and after other tests do not find any side-effect introduced in the software as a result of such fix
- B. a failed test, and aims to run that test again to confirm that the same behavior still occurs and thus appears to be reproducible
- C. a defect is fixed, and if such testing is successful then the regression tests that are relevant for such fix can be executed
- D. the execution of an automated regression test suite to confirm the absence of false positives in the test results
Answer: C
Explanation:
Confirmation testing is performed after a defect is fixed, and if such testing is successful then the regression tests that are relevant for such fix can be executed. Confirmation testing, also known as re-testing, is the process of verifying that a defect has been resolved by running the test case that originally detected the defect.
Confirmation testing is usually done before regression testing, which is the process of verifying that no new defects have been introduced in the software as a result of changes or fixes. Therefore, option D is the correct answer.
References: ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.01, Section 2.4.1, page 28; ISTQB Glossary v4.02, page 15.
NEW QUESTION # 74
The following rules determine the annual bonus to be paid to a salesman of a company based on the total annual amount of the sales made (referredto as TAS).
If the TAS is between 50k€ and 80k€, the bonus is 10%. If the TAS exceeds 80k€ by a value not greater than
40k€, the bonus is 15%. Finally, if the TAS
exceeds the maximum threshold which entitles to a 15% bonus, the bonus is 22%.
Consider applying equivalence partitioning to the TAS (Note: 1k€ = 1000 euros).
Which one of the following answers contain only test cases that belong to the same equivalence partition?
- A. TC1 = 81 k€; TC2= 97k€; TC3=111k€; TC4=118k€
- B. TC1 = 40k€; TC2= 46k€; TC3=51k€; TC4=53k€
- C. TC1 = 90k€; TC2= 110k€; TC3=125k€: TC4=140k€
- D. TC1 = 79k€; TC2= 80k€; TC3=81k€; TC4=82k€
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
This answer is correct because equivalence partitioning is a test design technique that divides the input domain of a system or component into partitions of equivalent data, such that each partition is expected to produce the same output or behavior. Equivalence partitioning aims to reduce the number of test cases by selecting one representative value from each partition. In this case, the input domain of the TAS can be divided into four partitions based on the bonus rules: less than 50k€, between 50k€ and 80k€, between 80k€ and 120k€, and more than 120k€. The test cases in the answer belong to the same partition, which is between 80k€ and 120k€, and they are expected to produce the same output, which is a bonus of 15%. References: ISTQB Glossary of Testing Terms v4.0, ISTQB Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, Section 2.3.2.1
NEW QUESTION # 75
Following a risk-based testing approach you have designed 10 tests to cover a product risk with a high-risk level. You want to estimate, adopting the three-point test estimation technique, the test effort required to reduce the risk level to zero by executing those 10 tests. You made the following three initial estimates:
* most optimistic = 6 person hours
* most likely = 30 person hours
* most pessimistic = 54 person hours
Based only on the given information, which of the following answers about the three-point test estimation technique applied to this problem is true?
- A. The final estimate is exactly 30 person hours because the technique uses the initial most likely estimate as the final estimate
- B. The final estimate is exactly 30 person hours because the technique uses the arithmetic mean of the three initial estimates as the final estimate
- C. The final estimate is between 6 person hours and 54 person hours
- D. The final estimate is between 22 person hours and 38 person hours
Answer: D
Explanation:
The three-point test estimation technique is a method of estimating the test effort based on three initial estimates: the most optimistic, the most likely, and the most pessimistic. The technique uses a weighted average of these three estimates to calculate the final estimate, which is also known as the expected value. The formula for the expected value is:
Expected value = (most optimistic + 4 * most likely + most pessimistic) / 6 Using the given values, the expected value is:
Expected value = (6 + 4 * 30 + 54) / 6 Expected value = 30 person hours However, the expected value is not the only factor to consider when estimating the test effort. The technique also calculates the standard deviation, which is a measure of the variability or uncertainty of the estimates. The formula for the standard deviation is:
Standard deviation = (most pessimistic - most optimistic) / 6
Using the given values, the standard deviation is:
Standard deviation = (54 - 6) / 6 Standard deviation = 8 person hours
The standard deviation can be used to determine a range of possible values for the test effort, based on a certain level of confidence. For example, using a 68% confidence level, the range is:
Expected value ± standard deviation
Using the calculated values, the range is:
30 ± 8 person hours
Therefore, the final estimate is between 22 person hours and 38 person hours, which is option A.
NEW QUESTION # 76
Which of the following statements is true?
- A. In Agile software development, work product documentation tends to be lightweight and manual tests tend to be often unscripted as they are often produced using experience-based test techniques
- B. Both in Agile software development and in sequential development models, such as the V-model, test levels tend to overlap since they do not usually have defined entry and exit criteria
- C. Sequential development models impose the use of systematic test techniques and do not allow the use of experience-based test techniques
- D. In Agile software development, the first iterations are exclusively dedicated to testing activities, as testing will be used to drive development, which will be performed in the subsequent iterations
Answer: A
Explanation:
This answer is correct because in Agile software development, work product documentation, such as user stories, acceptance criteria, or test cases, tends to be lightweight and concise, as the focus is on working software and frequent communication rather than comprehensive documentation. Manual tests tend to be often unscripted, as they are often produced using experience-based test techniques, such as error guessing or exploratory testing, which rely on the tester's skills, knowledge, and creativity to find defects and provide feedback. References: ISTQB Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, Section 3.1.1.2, Section 3.2.1.2
NEW QUESTION # 77
A typical test objective is to:
- A. verify the compliance of the test object with regulatory requirements
- B. plan test activities in accordance with the existing test policy and test strategy verify the correct creation and configuration of the test environment
- C. determine the most appropriate level of detail with which to design test cases
Answer: A
Explanation:
In the ISTQB CTFL Syllabus, it is stated that a key objective of testing is to verify that the test object meets regulatory requirements. This is crucial as compliance with regulatory standards ensures that the software adheres to necessary laws, guidelines, and safety standards which are often mandatory in various industries such as healthcare, finance, and aviation. Ensuring regulatory compliance helps prevent legal issues and promotes user safety and trust.
NEW QUESTION # 78
Following a risk-based testing approach you have designed 10 tests to cover a product risk with a high-risk level. You want to estimate, adopting the three-point test estimation technique, the test effort required to reduce the risk level to zero by executing those 10 tests. You made the following three initial estimates:
* most optimistic = 6 person hours
* most likely = 30 person hours
* most pessimistic = 54 person hours
Based only on the given information, which of the following answers about the three-point test estimation technique applied to this problem is true?
- A. The final estimate is exactly 30 person hours because the technique uses the initial most likely estimate as the final estimate
- B. The final estimate is exactly 30 person hours because the technique uses the arithmetic mean of the three initial estimates as the final estimate
- C. The final estimate is between 6 person hours and 54 person hours
- D. The final estimate is between 22 person hours and 38 person hours
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
The three-point test estimation technique is a method of estimating the test effort based on three initial estimates: the most optimistic, the most likely, and the most pessimistic. The technique uses a weighted average of these three estimates to calculate the final estimate, which is also known as the expected value. The formula for the expected value is:
Expected value = (most optimistic + 4 * most likely + most pessimistic) / 6 Using the given values, the expected value is:
Expected value = (6 + 4 * 30 + 54) / 6 Expected value = 30 person hours However, the expected value is not the only factor to consider when estimating the test effort. The technique also calculates the standard deviation, which is a measure of the variability or uncertainty of the estimates. The formula for the standard deviation is:
Standard deviation = (most pessimistic - most optimistic) / 6
Using the given values, the standard deviation is:
Standard deviation = (54 - 6) / 6 Standard deviation = 8 person hours
The standard deviation can be used to determine a range of possible values for the test effort, based on a certain level of confidence. For example, using a 68% confidence level, the range is:
Expected value ± standard deviation
Using the calculated values, the range is:
30±8 person hours
Therefore, the final estimate is between 22 person hours and 38 person hours, which is option A.
References: ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.01, Section 2.3.2, page 24-25; ISTQB Glossary v4.02, page 33.
NEW QUESTION # 79
During component testing of a program if 100% decision coverage is achieved, which of the following coverage criteria is also guaranteed to be 100%?
- A. 100% Equivalence class coverage
- B. 100% Stale transition coverage
- C. 100% Boundary value coverage
- D. 100% Statement coverage
Answer: D
Explanation:
Statement coverage is a structural coverage metric that measures the percentage of executable statements in the source code that are executed by a test suite1. Decision coverage is another structural coverage metric that measures the percentage of decision outcomes (such as branches or conditions) in the source code that are executed by a test suite1. Decision coverage is a stronger metric than statement coverage, because it requires that every possible outcome of each decision is tested, while statement coverage only requires that every statement is executed at least once2. Therefore, if a test suite achieves 100% decision coverage, it also implies that it achieves 100% statement coverage, because every statement in every branch or condition must have been executed. However, the converse is not true: 100% statement coverage does not guarantee 100% decision coverage, because some branches or conditions may have multiple outcomes that are not tested by the test suite2. For example, consider the following pseudocode:
if (x > 0) then print("Positive") else print("Non-positive") end if
A test suite that executes this code with x = 1 and x = -1 will achieve 100% statement coverage, because both print statements are executed. However, it will not achieve 100% decision coverage, because the condition x > 0 has only been tested with two outcomes: true and false. The third possible outcome, x = 0, has not been tested by the test suite. Therefore, the test suite may miss a potential bug or error in the condition or the branch.
The other options, such as stale transition coverage, equivalence class coverage, and boundary value coverage, are not guaranteed to be 100% by achieving 100% decision coverage. Stale transition coverage is a structural coverage metric that measures the percentage of transitions between states in a state machine that are executed by a test suite3. Equivalence class coverage is a functional coverage metric that measures the percentage of equivalence classes (or partitions) of input or output values that are tested by a test suite4. Boundary value coverage is another functional coverage metric that measures the percentage of boundary values (or extreme values) of input or output ranges that are tested by a test suite4. These metrics are independent of decision coverage, because they are based on different aspects of the system under test, such as its behavior, functionality, or specification. Therefore, achieving 100% decision coverage does not imply achieving 100% of any of these metrics, and vice versa. Reference = ISTQB® Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, Test Coverage in Software Testing - Guru99, Structural Coverage Metrics - MATLAB & Simulink - MathWorks India, Test Design Coverage in Software Testing - GeeksforGeeks.
NEW QUESTION # 80
Which of the following is a task the Author is responsible for, as part of a typical formal review?
- A. Recording the anomalies found during the review meeting
- B. Fixing the anomalies found in the work product under review
- C. Identifying potential anomalies in the work product under review
- D. Determining the people who will be involved in the review
Answer: C
Explanation:
This answer is correct because identifying potential anomalies in the work product under review is one of the tasks the Author is responsible for, as part of a typical formal review. The Author is the person who creates the work product to be reviewed, such as a requirement specification, a design document, or a test case. The Author's tasks include preparing the work product for the review, identifying potential anomalies in the work product, and fixing the anomalies found in the work product after the review. Reference: ISTQB Glossary of Testing Terms v4.0, ISTQB Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, Section 2.4.2.1
NEW QUESTION # 81
What is test oracle?
- A. The source of lest objectives
- B. The source of expected results
- C. The source of input conditions
- D. The source for the actual results
Answer: B
Explanation:
A test oracle is a mechanism or principle that can be used to determine whether the observed behavior or output of a system under test is correct or not1. A test oracle can be based on various sources of expected results, such as specifications, user expectations, previous versions, comparable systems, etc2. Reference: ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level (CTFL) v4.0 Syllabus, Section 1.2.1, Page 91; ISTQB Glossary of Testing Terms, Version 4.0, Page 332.
NEW QUESTION # 82
For each test case to be executed, the following table specifies its dependencies and the required configuration of the test environment for running such test case:
Assume that CONF1 is the initial configuration of the test environment. Based on this assumption, which of the following is a test execution schedule that is compatible with the specified dependencies and allows minimizing the number of switches between the different configurations of the test environment?
- A. TC4, TC3, TC2, TC1.TC5
- B. TC1.TC5.TC4. TC3, TC2
- C. TC4.TC1, TC5. TC2.TC3
- D. TC4, TC3. TC2, TC5, TC1
Answer: A
Explanation:
To determine the correct execution order that minimizes the number of configuration switches and respects the dependencies, we need to consider the following:
* Initial Configuration: CONF1.
* Dependencies:
* TC1 depends on nothing.
* TC2 depends on TC4.
* TC3 depends on TC4.
* TC4 depends on nothing.
* TC5 depends on TC1.
* Configuration Requirements:
* TC1 requires CONF2.
* TC2 requires CONF2.
* TC3 requires CONF1.
* TC4 requires CONF1.
* TC5 requires CONF2.
Given the initial configuration is CONF1, start with test cases that can run on CONF1 and respect the dependencies. Then switch to CONF2 only when necessary. The optimal order to minimize configuration switches is:
* Start with TC4 (no dependencies, CONF1).
* Continue with TC3 (depends on TC4, CONF1).
* Switch to CONF2.
* Execute TC2 (depends on TC4, CONF2).
* Continue with TC1 (no dependencies, CONF2).
* Finally, execute TC5 (depends on TC1, CONF2).
Therefore, the correct order is:
* TC4 (CONF1)
* TC3 (CONF1)
* TC2 (CONF2)
* TC1 (CONF2)
* TC5 (CONF2)
Thus, the answer is A. TC4, TC3, TC2, TC1, TC5.
NEW QUESTION # 83
Which of the following is not an example of a typical generic skill required for testing?
- A. Be able to apply test-driven development
- B. Be able to use test management tools and defect tracking tools
- C. Be able to communicate defects and failures to developers as objectively as possible
- D. Possess the necessary social skills that support effective teamwork
Answer: A
Explanation:
Test-driven development is not an example of a typical generic skill required for testing, but rather an example of a specific technical skill or a development practice that may or may not be relevant for testing, depending on the context and the objectives of the testing activities. Test-driven development is an approach to software development and testing, in which the developers write automated unit tests before writing the source code, and then refactor the code until the tests pass. Test-driven development can help to improve the quality, the design, and the maintainability of the code, as well as to provide fast feedback and guidance for the developers. However, test-driven development is not a skill that is generally expected or needed for testers, especially for testers who are not involved in unit testing or who do not have access to the source code. The other options are examples of typical generic skills required for testing, which are skills that are applicable and beneficial for testing in any context or situation, regardless of the specific testing techniques, tools, or methods used. The typical generic skills required for testing include:
* Be able to use test management tools and defect tracking tools: These are tools that help testers to plan, organize, monitor, and control the testing activities and resources, as well as to record, track, analyze, and resolve the defects detected during testing. These tools can improve the efficiency, the effectiveness, and the communication of the testing process, as well as to provide traceability, metrics, and reports for the testing outcomes.
* Be able to communicate defects and failures to developers as objectively as possible: This is a skill that involves the ability to report and describe the defects and failures found during testing in a clear, concise, accurate, and unbiased manner, using relevant information, evidence, and terminology, without making assumptions, judgments, or accusations. This skill can facilitate the collaboration, the understanding, and the resolution of the defects and failures between the testers and the developers, as well as to prevent conflicts, misunderstandings, or blame games.
* Possess the necessary social skills that support effective teamwork: These are skills that involve the ability to interact, cooperate, and coordinate with other people involved in or affected by the testing activities, such as the test manager, the test team, the project manager, the developers, the customers, the users, etc. These skills can include communication, negotiation, leadership, motivation, feedback, conflict resolution, etc. These skills can enhance the quality, the productivity, and the satisfaction of the testing process, as well as to foster a positive and constructive testing culture. References: ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level (CTFL) v4.0 sources and documents:
* ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, Chapter 1.1.1, Testing and the Software Development Lifecycle
* ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, Chapter 1.1.2, Testing and Quality
* ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, Chapter 1.2.1, Testing Principles
* ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, Chapter 1.2.2, Testing Policies, Strategies, and Test Approaches
* ISTQB Glossary of Testing Terms v4.0, Test-driven Development, Test Management Tool, Defect Tracking Tool, Defect Report, Failure, Social Skill2
NEW QUESTION # 84
Can "cost" be regarded as Exit criteria?
- A. Yes. Going by cost as an exit criterion constrains the testing project which will hello achieve the desired quality level defined for the project
- B. No. The financial value of product quality cannot be estimated, so it is incorrect to use cost as an exit criterion
- C. No The cost of testing cannot be measured effectively, so it is incorrect to use cost as an exit criterion
- D. Yes. Spending too much money on test ng will result in an unprofitable product, and having cost as an exit criterion helps avoid this
Answer: D
Explanation:
Cost can be regarded as an exit criterion for testing, because it is a factor that affects the profitability and feasibility of the software product. Testing is an investment that aims to improve the quality and reliability of the software product, but it also consumes resources, such as time, money, and human effort. Therefore, testing should be planned and executed in a way that balances the cost and benefit of testing activities. Having cost as an exit criterion helps to avoid spending too much money on testing, which may result in an unprofitable product or a loss of competitive advantage. Cost can also help to prioritize and focus the testing efforts on the most critical and valuable features and functions of the software product. However, cost should not be the only exit criterion for testing, as it may not reflect the true quality and risk level of the software product. Other exit criteria, such as defect rate, test coverage, user satisfaction, etc., should also be considered and defined in the test plan.
The other options are incorrect, because they either deny the importance of cost as an exit criterion, or they make false or unrealistic assumptions about the cost of testing. Option B is incorrect, because the financial value of product quality can be estimated, for example, by using cost-benefit analysis, return on investment, or cost of quality models. Option C is incorrect, because going by cost as an exit criterion does not necessarily constrain the testing project or help achieve the desired quality level. Cost is a relative and variable factor that depends on the scope, complexity, and context of the software product and the testing project. Option D is incorrect, because the cost of testing can be measured effectively, for example, by using metrics, such as test effort, test resources, test tools, test environment, etc.
NEW QUESTION # 85
Which of the following statements is true?
- A. Failures can be caused by defects, but also by environmental conditions
- B. A defect may cause a failure which, when occurring, always causes an error
- C. A defect does not always produce a failure, while a bug always produces a failure
- D. Bugs are defects found during component testing, while failures are defects found at higher test levels
Answer: A
Explanation:
Failures can be caused by defects, but also by environmental conditions. A failure is an event in which the software system does not perform a required function or performs a function incorrectly, according to the expected behavior. A defect is a flaw in the software system or a deviation from the requirements or the specifications, that may cause a failure. However, not all failures are caused by defects, as some failures may be caused by environmental conditions, such as hardware malfunctions, network interruptions, power outages, incompatible configurations, etc. Environmental conditions are factors that affect the operation of the software system, but are not part of the software system itself. The other statements are false, because:
* A defect does not always produce a failure, while a bug always produces a failure. This statement is false, because a defect may or may not produce a failure, depending on the inputs, the outputs, the states, or the scenarios of the software system, and a bug is just another term for a defect, so it has the
* same possibility of producing a failure as a defect. For example, a defect in a rarely used feature or a hidden branch of the code may never produce a failure, while a defect in a frequently used feature or a critical path of the code may produce a failure often. A bug is not a different concept from a defect, but rather a synonym or a colloquial term for a defect, so it has the same definition and implications as a defect.
* A defect may cause a failure which, when occurring, always causes an error. This statement is false, because an error is not a consequence of a failure, but rather a cause of a defect. An error is a human action or a mistake that produces a defect in the software system, such as a typo, a logic flaw, a requirement misunderstanding, etc. An error is not observable in the software system, but rather in the human mind or the human work products, such as the code, the design, the documentation, etc. A failure is not a cause of an error, but rather a result of a defect, which is a result of an error. For example, an error in the code may cause a defect in the software system, which may cause a failure in the software behavior.
* Bugs are defects found during component testing, while failures are defects found at higher test levels.
This statement is false, because bugs and failures are not different types of defects, but rather different terms for defects and their manifestations. As mentioned before, bugs are just another word for defects, and failures are the events in which the software system does not perform as expected due to defects.
Bugs and failures can be found at any test level, not only at component testing or higher test levels. Test levels are the stages of testing that correspond to the levels of integration of the software system, such as component testing, integration testing, system testing, and acceptance testing. Defects and failures can occur and be detected at any test level, depending on the test objectives, the test basis, the test techniques, and the test environment. References: ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level (CTFL) v4.0 sources and documents:
* ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, Chapter 1.1.2, Testing and Quality1
* ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, Chapter 1.2.1, Testing Principles1
* ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, Chapter 1.3.1, Testing in Software Development Lifecycles1
* ISTQB Glossary of Testing Terms v4.0, Failure, Defect, Bug, Environmental Condition, Error, Test Level2
NEW QUESTION # 86
Which of the following statements is true?
- A. Functional testing focuses on what the system should do while non-functional testing on the internal structure of the system
- B. Non-functional testing includes testing of both technical and non-technical quality characteristics
- C. The test techniques that can be used to design white-box tests are described in the ISO/IEC 25010 standard
- D. Testers who perform functional tests are generally expected to have more technical skills than testers who perform non-functional tests
Answer: B
Explanation:
Non-functional testing includes testing of both technical and non-technical quality characteristics. Non-functional testing is the process of testing the quality attributes of a system, such as performance, usability, security, reliability, etc. Non-functional testing can be applied at any test level and can use both black-box and white-box test techniques. Non-functional testing can cover both technical aspects, such as response time, throughput, resource consumption, etc., and non-technical aspects, such as user satisfaction, accessibility, compliance, etc. Therefore, option B is the correct answer.
NEW QUESTION # 87
Which of the following is a role that is usually responsible for documenting the findings (e.g., action items, decisions, recommendations) made by the review team as part of a typical formal review?
- A. Moderator
- B. Recorder
- C. Facilitator
- D. Review leader
Answer: B
Explanation:
In a typical formal review process, the role usually responsible for documenting the findings, such as action items, decisions, and recommendations, made by the review team is the recorder. The recorder ensures that all discussions and conclusions are accurately captured and documented for future reference and follow-up.
NEW QUESTION # 88
Which of the following applications will be the MOST suitable for testing by Use Cases
- A. Suitability and performance of a Multi media (audio video based) system to a new operating system
- B. Accuracy and usability of a new Navigation system compared with previous system
- C. A billing system used to calculate monthly charge based or large number of subscribers parameters
- D. The ability of an Anti virus package to detect and quarantine a new threat
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 89
Which of the following is a factor that contributes to a successful review?
- A. Review metrics must be collected to improve the review process
- B. All participants to the review will be evaluated based on the defects they will find
- C. The author of the work product to be reviewed leads the review meeting
- D. All participants to the review are trained to deal with the review type and its objectives
Answer: D
Explanation:
A factor that contributes to a successful review is ensuring that all participants are trained to understand the review type and its objectives. This training helps participants to effectively contribute to the review process, identify issues, and suggest improvements. Proper training also fosters a constructive and collaborative review environment.
NEW QUESTION # 90
Which of the following statements about white-box test techniques is true?
- A. Code-related white-box test techniques provide an objective measure of coverage and can be used to complement black-box test techniques to increase confidence in the code
- B. Achieving full statement coverage and full branch coverage for a software product means that such software product has been fully tested and there are no remaining bugs within the code
- C. Branch coverage is the most thorough code-related white-box test technique, and therefore applicable standards prescribe achieving full branch coverage at the highest safety levels for safety-critical systems
- D. Code-related white-box test techniques are not required to measure the actual code coverage achieved by black-box testing, as code coverage can be measured using the coverage criteria associated with black-box test techniques
Answer: A
Explanation:
This answer is correct because code-related white-box test techniques are test design techniques that use the structure of the code to derive test cases. They provide an objective measure of coverage, such as statement coverage, branch coverage, or path coverage, which indicate how much of the code has been exercised by the test cases. Code-related white-box test techniques can be used to complement black-box test techniques, which are test design techniques that use the functional or non-functional requirements of the system or component to derive test cases. By combining both types of techniques, testers can increase their confidence in the code and find more defects. References: ISTQB Glossary of Testing Terms v4.0, ISTQB Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, Section 2.3.2.2
NEW QUESTION # 91
A Test Manager conducts risk assessment for a project. One of the identified risks is: The sub-contractor may fail to meet his commitment". If this risk materializes. it will lead to delay in completion of testing required for the current cycle.
Which of the following sentences correctly describes the risk?
- A. It is a product risk since default on part of the sub-contractor may lead to delay in release of the product
- B. It is no longer a risk for the Test Manager since an independent party (the sub-contractor) is now managing it
- C. It is a object risk since successful completion of the object depends on successful and timely completion of the tests
- D. It is a product risk since any risk associated with development timeline is a product risk.
Answer: A
Explanation:
* A product risk is a risk that affects the quality or timeliness of the software product being developed or tested1. Product risks are related to the requirements, design, implementation, verification, and maintenance of the software product2.
* The risk of the sub-contractor failing to meet his commitment is a product risk, as it could cause a delay in the completion of the testing required for the current cycle, which in turn could affect the release date of the product. The release date is an important aspect of the product quality, as it reflects the customer satisfaction and the market competitiveness of the product3.
* The other options are not correct because:
* A. It is not true that any risk associated with development timeline is a product risk. Some risks could be project risks, which are risks that affect the management or control of the software project, such as budget, resources, schedule, or communication1. For example, a risk of losing a key project stakeholder is a project risk, not a product risk.
* B. It is not true that the risk is no longer a risk for the Test Manager since an independent party is managing it. The Test Manager is still responsible for ensuring that the testing activities are completed according to the test plan and the quality objectives4. The Test Manager should monitor and control the sub-contractor's performance and communicate with him regularly to identify and mitigate any potential issues or deviations5.
* C. It is not clear what is meant by "object" in this option, but it could be interpreted as the software system under test or the test object6. In any case, the risk is not an object risk, as it does not affect the successful completion of the object, but rather the successful completion of the testing of the object. An object risk could be a risk that affects the functionality, reliability, usability, efficiency, maintainability, or portability of the software system under test2. For example, a risk of the software system having a high complexity or a low testability is an object risk, not a product risk.
References =
* 1 ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, 2023, p. 97
* 2 ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, 2023, p. 98
* 3 ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, 2023, p. 99
* 4 ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, 2023, p. 100
* 5 ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, 2023, p. 101
* 6 ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, 2023, p. 102
NEW QUESTION # 92
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Pass ISTQB Foundation Level CTFL_Syll_4.0 Exam With 153 Questions: https://actualtests.latestcram.com/CTFL_Syll_4.0-exam-cram-questions.html
