CompTIA Exam 2026 SY0-701 Dumps Updated Questions UPDATED Aug-2026
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CompTIA SY0-701 Exam Syllabus Topics:
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NEW QUESTION # 266
A security consultant needs secure, remote access to a client environment. Which of the following should the security consultant most likely use to gain access?
- A. NAT
- B. IPSec
- C. EAP
- D. DHCP
Answer: B
Explanation:
IPSec is a protocol suite that provides secure communication over IP networks. IPSec can be used to create virtual private networks (VPNs) that encrypt and authenticate the data exchanged between two or more parties. IPSec can also provide data integrity, confidentiality, replay protection, and access control. A security consultant can use IPSec to gain secure, remote access to a client environment by establishing a VPN tunnel with the client's network.
NEW QUESTION # 267
An engineer needs to find a solution that creates an added layer of security by preventing unauthorized access to internal company resources. Which of the following would be the best solution?
- A. Proxy server
- B. Hypervisor
- C. RDP server
- D. Jump server
Answer: D
Explanation:
= A jump server is a server that acts as an intermediary between a user and a target system. A jump server can provide an added layer of security by preventing unauthorized access to internal company resources. A user can connect to the jump server using a secure protocol, such as SSH, and then access the target system from the jump server. This way, the target system is isolated from the external network and only accessible through the jump server. A jump server can also enforce security policies, such as authentication, authorization, logging, and auditing, on the user's connection. A jump server is also known as a bastion host or a jump box. References = CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam Objectives, Domain 3.3: Given a scenario, implement secure network architecture concepts. CompTIA Security+ Study Guide (SY0-701), Chapter 3:
Network Architecture and Design, page 101. Other Network Appliances - SY0-601 CompTIA Security+ :
3.3, Video 3:03. CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam SY0-701 Practice Test 1, Question 2.
NEW QUESTION # 268
Which of the following provides resilience by hosting critical VMs within different IaaS providers while being maintained by internal application owners?
- A. Multicloud architectures
- B. SaaS provider diversity
- C. On-premises server load balancing
- D. Corporate-owned, off-site locations
Answer: A
Explanation:
Multicloud architectures involve distributing workloads across multiple Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS) providers to improve resilience, reduce vendor lock-in, and increase fault tolerance.
SaaS diversity (B) relates to software services, load balancing (C) typically applies to on-premises, and off- site locations (D) are physical backups.
Multicloud strategies are key cloud architecture concepts in SY0-701#6:Chapter 10 CompTIA Security+ Study Guide#.
NEW QUESTION # 269
Which of the following is an example of a data protection strategy that uses tokenization?
- A. Replacing sensitive data with surrogate values
- B. Removing sensitive data from production systems
- C. Hashing sensitive data in critical systems
- D. Encrypting databases containing sensitive data
Answer: A
Explanation:
Tokenization replaces sensitive data with non-sensitive surrogate values that retain the necessary format but are meaningless without access to the original data.
NEW QUESTION # 270
As part of new compliance audit requirements, multiple servers need to be segmented on different networks and should be reachable only from authorized internal systems. Which of the following would meet the requirements?
- A. Implement a new IPSec tunnel from internal resources.
- B. Set up a WAP to allow internal access from public networks.
- C. Deploy an internal jump server to access resources.
- D. Configure firewall rules to block external access to Internal resources.
Answer: C
Explanation:
By using a jump server, you can restrict access to sensitive internal resources, ensuring that only authorized users can access the servers after authenticating through the jump server.
NEW QUESTION # 271
A government worker secretly copies classified files that contain defense tactics information to an external drive. The government worker then gives the external drive to a corrupt organization. Which of the following best describes the motivation of the worker?
- A. Espionage
- B. Blackmail
- C. Financial gain
- D. Data exfiltration
Answer: A
Explanation:
The act described is espionage, where classified information is stolen and provided to adversaries or unauthorized parties, usually for political, military, or strategic advantage.
Data exfiltration (B) is the technical act of stealing data but doesn't specify motivation. Financial gain (C) or blackmail (D) could be motivations but are not clearly indicated here.
Espionage is a classic threat actor motivation outlined in the Threats domain#6:Chapter 2 CompTIA Security+ Study Guide#.
NEW QUESTION # 272
A newly appointed board member with cybersecurity knowledge wants the board of directors to receive a quarterly report detailing the number of incidents that impacted the organization. The systems administrator is creating a way to present the data to the board of directors. Which of the following should the systems administrator use?
- A. Packet captures
- B. Dashboard
- C. Vulnerability scans
- D. Metadata
Answer: B
Explanation:
A dashboard is a graphical user interface that provides a visual representation of key performance indicators, metrics, and trends related to security events and incidents. A dashboard can help the board of directors to understand the number and impact of incidents that affected the organization in a given period, as well as the status and effectiveness of the security controls and processes. A dashboard can also allow the board of directors to drill down into specific details or filter the data by various criteria.
A packet capture is a method of capturing and analyzing the network traffic that passes through a device or a network segment. A packet capture can provide detailed information about the source, destination, protocol, and content of each packet, but it is not a suitable way to present a summary of incidents to the board of directors.
A vulnerability scan is a process of identifying and assessing the weaknesses and exposures in a system or a network that could be exploited by attackers. A vulnerability scan can help the organization to prioritize and remediate the risks and improve the security posture, but it is not a relevant way to report the number of incidents that occurred in a quarter14. Metadata is data that describes other data, such as its format, origin, structure, or context. Metadata can provide useful information about the characteristics and properties of data, but it is not a meaningful way to communicate the impact and frequency of incidents to the board of directors.
NEW QUESTION # 273
Which of the following environments utilizes a subset of customer data and is most likely to be used to assess the impacts of major system upgrades and demonstrate system features?
- A. Test
- B. Production
- C. Staging
- D. Development
Answer: C
Explanation:
A staging environment is a controlled setting that closely mirrors the production environment but uses a subset of customer data. It is used to test major system upgrades, assess their impact, and demonstrate new features before they are rolled out to the live production environment. This ensures that any issues can be identified and addressed in a safe environment before affecting end-users.
NEW QUESTION # 274
A company's web filter is configured to scan the URL for strings and deny access when matches are found. Which of the following search strings should an analyst employ to prohibit access to non-encrypted websites?
- A. encryption=off\
- B. www.*.com
- C. http://
- D. :443
Answer: C
Explanation:
A web filter is a device or software that can monitor, block, or allow web traffic based on predefined rules or policies. One of the common methods of web filtering is to scan the URL for strings and deny access when matches are found. For example, a web filter can block access to websites that contain the words "gambling", "porn", or "malware" in their URLs. A URL is a uniform resource locator that identifies the location and protocol of a web resource. A URL typically consists of the following components: protocol://domain:port/path?query#fragment. The protocol specifies the communication method used to access the web resource, such as HTTP, HTTPS, FTP, or SMTP. The domain is the name of the web server that hosts the web resource, such as www.google.com or www.bing.com. The port is an optional number that identifies the specific service or application running on the web server, such as 80 for HTTP or 443 for HTTPS. The path is the specific folder or file name of the web resource, such as /index.html or /images/logo.png. The query is an optional string that contains additional information or parameters for the web resource, such as ?q=security or ?lang=en. The fragment is an optional string that identifies a specific part or section of the web resource, such as #introduction or #summary.
To prohibit access to non-encrypted websites, an analyst should employ a search string that matches the protocol of non-encrypted web traffic, which is HTTP. HTTP stands for hypertext transfer protocol, and it is a standard protocol for transferring data between web servers and web browsers. However, HTTP does not provide any encryption or security for the data, which means that anyone who intercepts the web traffic can read or modify the data. Therefore, non-encrypted websites are vulnerable to eavesdropping, tampering, or spoofing attacks. To access a non-encrypted website, the URL usually starts with http://, followed by the domain name and optionally the port number. For example, http://www.example.com or http://www.example.com:80. By scanning the URL for the string http://, the web filter can identify and block non-encrypted websites.
The other options are not correct because they do not match the protocol of non-encrypted web traffic. Encryption=off is a possible query string that indicates the encryption status of the web resource, but it is not a standard or mandatory parameter. Https:// is the protocol of encrypted web traffic, which uses hypertext transfer protocol secure (HTTPS) to provide encryption and security for the data. Www.*.com is a possible domain name that matches any website that starts with www and ends with .com, but it does not specify the protocol. :443 is the port number of HTTPS, which is the protocol of encrypted web traffic. Reference = CompTIA Security+ Study Guide (SY0-701), Chapter 2: Securing Networks, page 69. Professor Messer's CompTIA SY0-701 Security+ Training Course, Section 2.1: Network Devices and Technologies, video: Web Filter (5:16).
NEW QUESTION # 275
An organization experiences a cybersecurity incident involving a command-and-control server.
Which of the following logs should be analyzed to identify the impacted host? (Choose two.)
- A. Database
- B. Firewall
- C. Network
- D. DHCP
- E. Authentication
- F. Application
Answer: B,C
Explanation:
Network logs (Option D): These logs can help identify network connections to the command-and- control server and provide information about source IP addresses (the impacted host) and destination IP addresses (the command-and-control server).
Firewall logs (Option E): Firewall logs also track network traffic and can provide valuable information about source and destination IP addresses, helping identify the impacted host and its communication with the command-and-control server.
NEW QUESTION # 276
Which of the following topics would most likely be included within an organization's SDLC?
- A. Branch protection requirements
- B. Service-level agreements
- C. Information security policy
- D. Penetration testing methodology
Answer: A
Explanation:
Branch protection requirements are related to the version control and development process within the SDLC, ensuring that code changes are reviewed, tested, and approved before being merged into main branches. This helps maintain code quality and security throughout the development process.
Penetration testing is usually conducted as part of the testing phase or after deployment to identify vulnerabilities and security weaknesses. It is a separate process from the core stages of the SDLC but is an important aspect of ensuring the security and robustness of the application once development is completed.
NEW QUESTION # 277
Which of the following is the most likely to be included as an element of communication in a security awareness program?
- A. Detecting insider threats using anomalous behavior recognition
- B. Reporting phishing attempts or other suspicious activities
- C. Verifying information when modifying wire transfer data
- D. Performing social engineering as part of third-party penetration testing
Answer: B
Explanation:
A security awareness program is a set of activities and initiatives that aim to educate and inform the users and employees of an organization about the security policies, procedures, and best practices. A security awareness program can help to reduce the human factor in security risks, such as social engineering, phishing, malware, data breaches, and insider threats. A security awareness program should include various elements of communication, such as newsletters, posters, videos, webinars, quizzes, games, simulations, and feedback mechanisms, to deliver the security messages and reinforce the security culture. One of the most likely elements of communication to be included in a security awareness program is reporting phishing attempts or other suspicious activities, as this can help to raise the awareness of the users and employees about the common types of cyberattacks and how to respond to them. Reporting phishing attempts or other suspicious activities can also help to alert the security team and enable them to take appropriate actions to prevent or mitigate the impact of the attacks. Therefore, this is the best answer among the given options.
The other options are not as likely to be included as elements of communication in a security awareness program, because they are either technical or operational tasks that are not directly related to the security awareness of the users and employees. Detecting insider threats using anomalous behavior recognition is a technical task that involves using security tools or systems to monitor and analyze the activities and behaviors of the users and employees and identify any deviations or anomalies that may indicate malicious or unauthorized actions. This task is usually performed by the security team or the security operations center, and it does not require the communication or participation of the users and employees. Verifying information when modifying wire transfer data is an operational task that involves using verification methods, such as phone calls, emails, or digital signatures, to confirm the authenticity and accuracy of the information related to wire transfers, such as the account number, the amount, or the recipient. This task is usually performed by the financial or accounting department, and it does not involve the security awareness of the users and employees. Performing social engineering as part of third-party penetration testing is a technical task that involves using deception or manipulation techniques, such as phishing, vishing, or impersonation, to test the security posture and the vulnerability of the users and employees to social engineering attacks. This task is usually performed by external security professionals or consultants, and it does not require the communication or consent of the users and employees. Therefore, these options are not the best answer for this question.
References = Security Awareness and Training - CompTIA Security+ SY0-701: 5.2, video at 0:
00; CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, page 263.
NEW QUESTION # 278
A security administrator receives multiple reports about the same suspicious email. Which of the following is the most likely reason for the malicious email's continued delivery?
- A. Employees are forwarding personal emails to company email addresses.
- B. Employees are flagging legitimate emails as spam.
- C. Information from reported emails is not being used to tune email filtering tools.
- D. Employees are using shadow IT solutions for email.
Answer: C
Explanation:
If reported email data is not used to update and tune filtering tools, the malicious email can continue bypassing defenses and reaching other users' inboxes.
NEW QUESTION # 279
A security analyst is reviewing the following logs:
Which of the following attacks is most likely occurring?
- A. Pass-t he-hash
- B. Brute-force
- C. Account forgery
- D. Password spraying
Answer: D
Explanation:
Password spraying is a type of brute force attack that tries common passwords across several accounts to find a match. It is a mass trial-and-error approach that can bypass account lockout protocols. It can give hackers access to personal or business accounts and information. It is not a targeted attack, but a high-volume attack tactic that uses a dictionary or a list of popular or weak passwords12.
The logs show that the attacker is using the same password ("password123") to attempt to log in to different accounts ("admin", "user1", "user2", etc.) on the same web server. This is a typical pattern of password spraying, as the attacker is hoping that at least one of the accounts has a weak password that matches the one they are trying. The attacker is also using a tool called Hydra, which is one of the most popular brute force tools, often used in cracking passwords for network authentication3.
Account forgery is not the correct answer, because it involves creating fake accounts or credentials to impersonate legitimate users or entities. There is no evidence of account forgery in the logs, as the attacker is not creating any new accounts or using forged credentials.
Pass-the-hash is not the correct answer, because it involves stealing a hashed user credential and using it to create a new authenticated session on the same network. Pass-the-hash does not require the attacker to know or crack the password, as they use the stored version of the password to initiate a new session4. The logs show that the attacker is using plain text passwords, not hashes, to try to log in to the web server.
Brute-force is not the correct answer, because it is a broader term that encompasses different types of attacks that involve trying different variations of symbols or words until the correct password is found. Password spraying is a specific type of brute force attack that uses a single common password against multiple accounts5. The logs show that the attacker is using password spraying, not brute force in general, to try to gain access to the web server. References = 1: Password spraying: An overview of password spraying attacks
... - Norton, 2: Security: Credential Stuffing vs. Password Spraying - Baeldung, 3: Brute ForceAttack: A definition + 6 types to know | Norton, 4: What is a Pass-the-Hash Attack? - CrowdStrike, 5: What is a Brute Force Attack? | Definition, Types & How It Works - Fortinet
NEW QUESTION # 280
The executive management team is mandating the company develop a disaster recovery plan. The cost must be kept to a minimum, and the money to fund additional internet connections is not available. Which of the following would be the best option?
- A. Cold site
- B. Warm site
- C. Hot site
- D. Failover site
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 281
A systems administrator receives an alert that a company's internal file server is very slow and is only working intermittently. The systems administrator reviews the server management software and finds the following information about the server:
Which of the following indicators most likely triggered this alert?
- A. Resource consumption
- B. Concurrent session usage
- C. Account lockout
- D. Network saturation
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 282
A group of developers has a shared backup account to access the source code repository. Which of the following is the best way to secure the backup account if there is an SSO failure?
- A. SAML
- B. PAM
- C. RAS
- D. EAP
Answer: B
Explanation:
Privileged Access Management (PAM) solutions enhance security by enforcing strong authentication, rotation of credentials, and access control for shared accounts. This is especially critical in scenarios like SSO failures.
NEW QUESTION # 283
Which of the following physical controls can be used to both detect and deter? (Choose two.)
- A. Fencing
- B. Sensor
- C. Lock
- D. Bollard
- E. Lighting
- F. Signage
Answer: B,E
Explanation:
Lighting will illuminate the area, detect people attempting to be under the cover of night, and deter them from committing unwanted acts. Furthermore, a sensor will detect movement in an area, and sensors that are visible can ward off any potential bad actors.
NEW QUESTION # 284
A security operations center determines that the malicious activity detected on a server is normal.
Which of the following activities describes the act of ignoring detected activity in the future?
- A. Archiving
- B. Aggregating
- C. Tuning
- D. Quarantining
Answer: C
Explanation:
Tuning is the activity of adjusting the configuration or parameters of a security tool or system to optimize its performance and reduce false positives or false negatives. Tuning can help to filter out the normal or benign activity that is detected by the security tool or system, and focus on the malicious or anomalous activity that requires further investigation or response. Tuning can also help to improve the efficiency and effectiveness of the security operations center by reducing the workload and alert fatigue of the analysts. Tuning is different from aggregating, which is the activity of collecting and combining data from multiple sources or sensors to provide a comprehensive view of the security posture. Tuning is also different from quarantining, which is the activity of isolating a potentially infected or compromised device or system from the rest of the network to prevent further damage or spread. Tuning is also different from archiving, which is the activity of storing and preserving historical data or records for future reference or compliance. The act of ignoring detected activity in the future that is deemed normal by the security operations center is an example of tuning, as it involves modifying the settings or rules of the security tool or system to exclude the activity from the detection scope. Therefore, this is the best answer among the given options.
NEW QUESTION # 285
Which of the following is the most likely to be included as an element of communication in a security awareness program?
- A. Detecting insider threats using anomalous behavior recognition
- B. Reporting phishing attempts or other suspicious activities
- C. Verifying information when modifying wire transfer data
- D. Performing social engineering as part of third-party penetration testing
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
A security awareness program is a set of activities and initiatives that aim to educate and inform the users and employees of an organization about the security policies, procedures, and best practices. A security awareness program can help to reduce the human factor in security risks, such as social engineering, phishing, malware, data breaches, and insider threats. A security awareness program should include various elements of communication, such as newsletters, posters, videos, webinars, quizzes, games, simulations, and feedback mechanisms, to deliver the security messages and reinforce the security culture. One of the most likely elements of communication to be included in a security awareness program is reporting phishing attempts or other suspicious activities, as this can help to raise the awareness of the users and employees about the common types of cyberattacks and how to respond to them. Reporting phishing attempts or other suspicious activities can also help to alert the security team and enable them to take appropriate actions to prevent or mitigate the impact of the attacks. Therefore, this is the best answer among the given options.
The other options are not as likely to be included as elements of communication in a security awareness program, because they are either technical or operational tasks that are not directly related to the security awareness of the users and employees. Detecting insider threats using anomalous behavior recognition is a technical task that involves using security tools or systems to monitor and analyze the activities and behaviors of the users and employees and identify any deviations or anomalies that may indicate malicious or unauthorized actions. This task is usually performed by the security team or the security operations center, and it does not require the communication or participation of the users and employees. Verifying information when modifying wire transfer data is an operational task that involves using verification methods, such as phone calls, emails, or digital signatures, to confirm the authenticity and accuracy of the information related to wire transfers, such as the account number, the amount, or the recipient. This task is usually performed by the financial or accounting department, and it does not involve the security awareness of the users and employees.
Performing social engineering as part of third-party penetration testing is a technical task that involves using deception or manipulation techniques, such as phishing, vishing, or impersonation, to test the security posture and the vulnerability of the users and employees to social engineering attacks. This task is usually performed by external security professionals or consultants, and it does not require the communication or consent of the users and employees. Therefore, these options are not the best answer for this question. References = Security Awareness and Training - CompTIA Security+ SY0-701: 5.2, video at 0:00; CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, page 263.
NEW QUESTION # 286
A company executive connects to various networks, such as hotel guest Wi-Fi. while traveling. A security analyst needs to provide a solution that will allow the executive to securely access the corporate internal resources. Which of the following would best meet this requirement?
- A. VPN
- B. Perimeter network
- C. EAP
- D. Jump server
Answer: A
Explanation:
A VPN establishes an encrypted tunnel over untrusted networks, ensuring the executive can securely access corporate internal resources from any location.
NEW QUESTION # 287
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